Renal Replacement Therapy is part of the Renal System section of Medicine. Practise 26 exam-style MCQs for NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS, each with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.
Renal Replacement Therapy MCQs follow end-stage renal disease onto haemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis, weighing hyperparathyroid bone disease against erythropoietin effects and post-transplant complications, in high-yield NEET PG and INI-CET revision.
Sample Renal Replacement Therapy MCQs with answers
Sample MCQ #1
A 27-year-old woman is in end-stage renal disease. She has been started on regular haemodialysis. She complains of pain in her fingers. An X-ray shows digital subperiosteal erosions. What is the primary metabolic cause for her bony condition?
AIncreased serum phosphate levels
BIncreased parathyroid hormone levels
CIncreased renal 1a-hydroxylase enzyme levels
DIncreased serum calcium levels
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. Increased serum phosphate levels
Digital sub periosteal resorption is classical of Osteitis fibrosa cystica of hyperparathyroidism. In CKD secondary hyperparathyroidism may progress to tertiary hyperparathyroidism. The series of events that happen in CKD is: Declining GFR leads to reduced excretion of phosphate and thus, phosphate retention The retained phosphate stimulates increased synthesis of both FGF-23 by osteocytes and of PTH and also stimulates growth of parathyroid gland mass PTH production is stimulated by decreased levels of ionized calcium, which in turn, result from decreased levels of renal calcitriol production with reduced kidney mass and suppression of calcitriol production due to phosphate retention and elevated levels of FGF-23, which also increases degradation of calcitriol. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21 st edition, Ch:311, Pg:2313
Sample MCQ #2
A 60-year-old man with long-standing type-2 diabetes, who has recently started on peritoneal dialysis, is admitted with a fractured femoral neck. His serum calcium concentration is 2.9 mmol/l, phosphate is 2 mmol/l and PTH is 5.6 pg/ml(normal range 25-65). Medications include alfacalcidol 0.5 mg daily and calcium carbonate 500 mg three times daily. What would a bone biopsy show?
AAdynamic bone disease
BAluminium deposition at the osteoid bone interface
CAn increase in plasma cells
DOsteitis fibrosa cystica
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. Adynamic bone disease
Referring to the above question, we can clearly say that this patient is suffering from adynamic bone disease. Note that the calcium and phosphorous given here are in mmol/l. Ca value has to be multiplied by 4. So the Ca is 11.6mg/dl. Phosphorous has to be multiplied by 3. So the value is 6mg/dl. Aluminium deposited can cause osteomalacia like picture and is seen with use of aluminium as phosphate binder and Al in dialysate. Osteitis fibrosa cystica is severe secondary hyperparathyroidism. An increase in plasma cells cause hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal medicine, 21 st edition, Ch:410, Pg:3181, 3182.
Sample MCQ #3
Which of the following statements are true regarding the management of Lupus nephritis? 1. HCQS should be included as treatment for all classes since it reduces the accrual of tissue damage. 2. Management of class I and Class II should be guided by the extra renal manifestations. 3. Class III and IV requires aggressive immunosuppression. 4. Isolated Class V has got better prognosis than class IV. 5. Isolated class V without nephrotic range proteinuria requires only supportive management.
AAll are correct
B1, 2 and 3
C1, 3 and 5
D1, 2 and 4
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. All are correct
The question deals with the management and prognosis of Lupus Nephritis. HCQ should be in the management of allclasses of lupus nephritis. Class I and II should be treated mainly based on the extra renal manifestations. Class III and IV are the proliferative and serious forms and require aggressive immunosuppression with high dose glucocorticoid with either MMF or Cyclophosphamide. Isolated Class V presents with proteinuria alone and has got better outcome than class IV. But class V often co exists with class III and IV. Class V with nephrotic range proteinuria should be treated with immunosuppression, usually steroid with calcinurin inhibitors. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 21st edition Ch:356 Pg:2739-2747 KDIGO guidelines
Sample MCQ #4
A 47 year old man has a renal transplant. He presents with a hot swollen ankle on the left and fevers. The symptoms have been present for 2 days. What should be done?
ACheck serum uric acid level
BInject intra-articular steroids
CGive colchicine
DSend joint fluid for microscopy and culture
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: D. Send joint fluid for microscopy and culture
Acute monoarthritis with fever should raise the suspicion of septic arthritis especially in immunosuppressed patients. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 21st edition, Ch: 370, Pg: 2845
Sample MCQ #5
A 70-year-old man with no previous past medical history presents with a BP of 180/100 mm Hg, frothy urine and peripheral oedema. There is 1+ blood and 3+ protein on urinalysis. 24-hour protein loss is 5 grams. Plasma albumin is 2.5 g/dL. Plasma C3 is 0.1 (low). Plasma creatinine is 1.80 mg/dl. A renal biopsy is performed. ANA is negative. ESR is 110. Which of the following is most likely to be found on the biopsy?
AMinimal change glomerulonephritis
BMesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis
CIgA nephropathy
DPost streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: B. Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis
This is patient has low C3 levels. So we may tend to think of PSGN. But here, there is no history of sore throat or preceeding streptococcal illness. Another point against PSGN is the presence of nephrotic range proteinuria which is very rare in PSGN. So the answer is MPGN. We should know that mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis and membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis are the same and is just a histologic diagnosis and noy etiologic. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21 st ed, Ch: 314, Pg: 2341.
Sample MCQ #6
A 58-year-old man with CKD has been on EPO injections 3 times a week for several years. Which one of the following is a side effect of erythropoietin therapy?
AHypokalaemia
BOsteoporosis
CSeizures
DIron overload
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: C. Seizures
EPO therapy may lead to hypertension and seizures. Other side effects of treatment with erythropoietin include hyperkalaemia in uraemic patients, increased PCV, thrombocythemia, shunt thrombosis, iron deficiency and urticaria. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Principles, 20 th edition, Ch:305, Pg: 2117, 2118, 393, 499, 729
Sample MCQ #7
Which among the following statements is false?
AIn renal transplantation, Kidneys with high KDPI are allocated to those expected to have high post-transplant survival.
BLiving donor transplants fare better than deceased donor kidneys
CImmunosuppression is required lifelong for patients after transplant, except if donated by an identical twin or simultaneous kidney-bone marrow transplantation.
DATG and Alemtuzumab are used as depleting agents
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. In renal transplantation, Kidneys with high KDPI are allocated to those expected to have high post-transplant survival.
Kidney Donor Profile Index(KDPI) is a score designed to estimate the risk of graft survival, ranging from 0-100%. Lower KDPI is associated with lesser chance of rejection. KDPI of Living donor transplants do well than deceased donor transplant. Immunosuppression is not required for identical twin and combined kidney-bone marrow transplant. Induction therapy will be done with depleting agents like ATG or Alemtuzumab or non-depleting agents directed against IL2 receptors to reduce the risk of acute rejection. Reference: Harrison's principles of internal medicine, 21 st ed, Ch: 313, Pg: 2325-2328.
Sample MCQ #8
A 19-year-old male is unwell. He has previously had a history of renal transplantation 5 years ago. Within three days of admission he developed acute renal failure with evidence of haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia. A clinical diagnosis of haemolytic uraemic syndrome was made and he was treated with plasma exchange. Which one of the following drugs could have caused this?
ACyclosporine
BTrimethoprim
CPrednisolone
DAmoxicillin
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. Cyclosporine
Cyclosporine can cause HUS in renal transplant recipients, especially in those also receiving rapamycin, which increases tissue concentrations of ciclosporin. Drugs causing thrombotic microangiopathy: Calcineurin inhibitors Mitomycin C Clopidogrel Gemcitabine Proteasome inhibitors(Bortezomib) Oral contraceptives Interferon Tacrolimus and Sirolimus These drugs cause direct endothelial damage and is dose dependent. Antibody mediated TMA can occur with Clopidogrel, Quinine. It is dose independent. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21 st edition, Ch: 317, Pg: 2365.
What you can practise in Renal Replacement Therapy
26 Renal Replacement Therapy MCQs on Renal System — each with detailed explanations
Previous-year question practice across NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS
Progress and performance tracking to measure retention
Renal Replacement Therapy MCQs follow end-stage renal disease onto haemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis, weighing hyperparathyroid bone disease against erythropoietin effects and post-transplant complications, in high-yield NEET PG and INI-CET revision.
How many Renal Replacement Therapy questions are there, and which exams do they cover?
MedLadder includes 26 curated MCQs for Renal Replacement Therapy under Medicine (Renal System), covering NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS preparation.