Medical Entrance Revision · Surgery

Polyps and Colorectal Carcinoma MCQs

Polyps and Colorectal Carcinoma is part of the Lower GI & Hernia Surgery section of Surgery. Practise 132 exam-style MCQs for NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS, each with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

132
Questions
Core
Lower GI & Hernia Surgery
4 Exams
NEET PG · INICET · FMGE · SS
100%
With Rationales
All Surgery Topics

About Polyps and Colorectal Carcinoma MCQs

Polyps and Colorectal Carcinoma MCQs link colorectal polyps with malignancy, including the Streptococcus bovis endocarditis association, and survey screening and staging themes, as high-yield NEET PG revision for FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS.

Sample Polyps and Colorectal Carcinoma MCQs with answers

Sample MCQ #1

Which of the following autoinflammatory syndrome shows clock like regularity of episodes?

AFMF
BPFAPA
CMuckle Wells Syndrome
DMevalonate Kinase deficiency
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: B. PFAPA

Periodic Fever with Aphthous Stomatitis , pharyngitis and cervical adenitis presents with clock like periodicity. It is the Most common autoinflammatory syndrome in children. Reference : Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21 st ed, Ch; 369 Pg: 2843

Sample MCQ #2

A 50-year-old woman has investigations for recurrent renal calculi. A 24 hour urine collection revealed: calcium 18 mmol/24 hours(2-7) oxalate 180 mmol/24 hours (90-450) uric acid 2.8 mmol/24 hours (1.5-4.4) citrate 2 mmol/24 hours (0.3-0.4). Which form of treatment is likely to be successful?

APenicillamine
BThiazide diuretics
CInsulin
DAluminium phosphate
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: B. Thiazide diuretics

Hypercalciuria is the most common identifiable cause of calcium kidney stone disease. The commonest type of renal stone is Calcium Oxalate. Currently there is no normal or cut off to define hypercalciuria. High calcium along with high urine oxalate and low urinary citrate cause Calcium oxalate stones. Pharmacological management of Calcium Oxalate stones Thiazide diuretics, usually Chlorthalidone, along with sodium restriction. Sodium restriction, if not followed will not lead to the desired effect on calcium. The other significant causes are hyperoxaluria, hyperuricosuria, low urinary volume, and hypocitraturia. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21 st ed, Ch: 318, Pg: 2372.

Sample MCQ #3

A 62 year old man with history of colorectal polyps presents with low grade fever, weight loss and night sweats. ECHO showed vegetations on the aortic valve. Which is the most likely organism to be grown in blood culture?

AStreptococcus bovis
BStreptococcus viridans
CStaphylococcus aureus
DCoxiella burnetti
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. Streptococcus bovis

Streptococcus bovis bacteremia and endocarditis have been strongly associated with colorectal neoplasia. Patient identified to have S. bovis endocarditis should be evaluated for the presence of colorectal polyps or cancer. Penicillin G is the treatment of choice for S. bovis endocarditis typically given for 4 weeks. Staphylococcus aureus is the most commonly isolated organism from endocarditis occurring in IV drug abusers, which preferentially affects the tricuspid valve. Reference : Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 21 st edition Page 1023-25

Sample MCQ #4

An alcoholic patient who is diagnosed with chronic hepatitis has been admitted to emergency room for vomiting of blood since last 2 days due to variceal bleeding. Patient is in shock. You are the doctor and you have started the first line treatment, but the patient died. What is the underlying cause of death in this patient?

AHepatic failure
BSeptic shock
CChronic hepatitis
DHypovolemic shock
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: D. Hypovolemic shock

Varices are ubiquitous in patients with portal hypertension irrespective of the etiology and usually present with an acute, large-volume haematemesis associated with a high morbidity and significant mortality. The lower esophagus is the most common site and the diagnosis should be suspected in a patient known to have cirrhosis, but confirmation of the source is required following initial resuscitation. Variceal hemorrhage is a medical emergency and failure to control variceal bleeding with current medical management occurs in 10-20% of cases. The most common cause of death in these patients are HEMORRHAGIC SHOCK -> HYPOVOLEMIC SHOCK Patients with massive hemorrhage should be admitted to an intensive therapy unit, venous access obtained through two large-bore peripheral cannulae and resuscitation commenced, ideally with blood.

Sample MCQ #5

All of the following are aim of emergency department thoracotomy except

AInternal cardiac massage
BClamping of the ascending aorta to cut off the blood supply to the heart and brain
CControl of intrathoracic haemorrhage from other sources
DControl of massive air leak
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: B. Clamping of the ascending aorta to cut off the blood supply to the heart and brain

The aim of EDT is to perform: Internal cardiac massage; Control of haemorrhage from injury to the heart or lung; Control of intrathoracic haemorrhage from other sources; Control of massive air leak; Clamping of the thoracic aorta to preserve the blood supply to the heart and brain, and cutting off the arterial supply distally, in a moribund patient with a major distal penetrating injury. Reference : Bailey & Love's short practice of surgery, chapter: 29, Edition: 28th, Pg: 378

Sample MCQ #6

All of the following are considered as futile for emergency department thoracotomy except

ACPR in the absence of endotracheal intubation for more than 5 minutes
BCPR for more than 10 minutes (despite endotracheal intubation)
CBlunt trauma when there have been no signs of life at the scene
DAll are correct
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: D. All are correct

In certain situations, EDT is considered futile: CPR in the absence of endotracheal intubation for more than 5 minutes; CPR for more than 10 minutes (despite endotracheal intubation); Blunt trauma when there have been no signs of life at the scene Reference : Bailey & Love's short practice of surgery, chapter: 29, Edition: 28th, Pg: 378

Sample MCQ #7

Treatment for primary hyperparathyroidism true is/are

AAll symptomatic patients should be offered surgery.
BAll asymptomatic with >50 years age
CRisk of RLN damage 10%
DAll of the above
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. All symptomatic patients should be offered surgery.

All symptomatic patients should be offered surgery. An expert panel recently published recommendations on which asymptomatic patients should be considered for surgical intervention (Bilezikian et al., 2014). When criteria have been met and where a single adenoma has been identified by radiological means, a minimally invasive parathyroidectomy may be offered. Conversely, where there is discordant imaging or where imaging fails to identify any parathyroid abnormalities, then a bilateral neck exploration and three and a half-gland parathyroidectomy or a four- gland parathyroidectomy and autotransplantation should be performed. Reference : Bailey & Love's short practice of surgery 28 th Edition, CHAPTER 56, The parathyroid glands, Pg:879.

Sample MCQ #8

Only definite treatment for secondary hyperparathyroidism

ASubtotal parathyroidectomy
BTotal parathyroidectomy and auto transplantation
CTotal parathyroidectomy only
DRenal transplantation
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: D. Renal transplantation

Renal transplantation remains the only definite treatment for secondary hyperparathyroidism . Other therapies are a bridge to this or aim to provide symptom relief. Standard management includes replacement of calcium and vitamin D and the reduction of phosphate levels by the use of phosphate binders. Treatment of this disease changed radically with the introduction of calcimimetic drugs, such as cinacalcet. Calcimimetics alter the set point of the CaR, thereby reducing the constant stimulation of the parathyroid glands and lowering the PTH level. Reference : Bailey & Love's short practice of surgery 28 th Edition, CHAPTER 56, The parathyroid glands, Pg:885.

What you can practise in Polyps and Colorectal Carcinoma

  • 132 Polyps and Colorectal Carcinoma MCQs on Polyps, Colorectal Carcinoma, Lower GI & Hernia Surgery — each with detailed explanations
  • Previous-year question practice across NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS
  • Progress and performance tracking to measure retention

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Prepare for your exam

NEET PG Question BankTopic-wise MCQs and previous-year questionsINI-CET Question BankTopic-wise MCQs and previous-year questionsFMGE Question BankTopic-wise MCQs and previous-year questionsNEET SS Question BankTopic-wise MCQs and previous-year questionsFree All-India Mock TestsTimed mocks with live leaderboards

Frequently Asked Questions

What do Polyps and Colorectal Carcinoma MCQs cover?

Polyps and Colorectal Carcinoma MCQs link colorectal polyps with malignancy, including the Streptococcus bovis endocarditis association, and survey screening and staging themes, as high-yield NEET PG revision for FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS.

How many Polyps and Colorectal Carcinoma questions are there, and which exams do they cover?

MedLadder includes 132 curated MCQs for Polyps and Colorectal Carcinoma under Surgery (Lower GI & Hernia Surgery), covering NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS preparation.