Medical Entrance Revision · Pharmacology

Sympathomimetics MCQs

Sympathomimetics is part of the Autonomic Nervous System section of Pharmacology. Practise 62 exam-style MCQs for NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS, each with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

62
Questions
Core
Autonomic Nervous System
4 Exams
NEET PG · INICET · FMGE · SS
100%
With Rationales
All Pharmacology Topics

About Sympathomimetics MCQs

Sympathomimetics MCQs range from beta-blocker overdose and its glucagon rescue to cocaine toxicity, anaphylaxis management and phenylephrine haemodynamics. This high-yield NEET PG collection tests adrenergic receptor pharmacology through vivid clinical vignettes.

Sample Sympathomimetics MCQs with answers

Sample MCQ #1

A 42-year-old man with a 6-cm right adrenal tumour is going to undergo a laparoscopic surgical procedure to remove the tumour. It is anticipated that the procedure will take approximately 12 h. The patient has a history of hypertension controlled with a alpha-blocker. Which of the following agents, used intraoperatively, will provide efficacious blood pressure control for the duration of the procedure?

AAcebutolol
BEsmolol
CMetoprolol
DNadolol
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: D. Nadolol

Nadolol has a half-life of 12 to 24 h and would be the best agent for beta-blockade in a patient who is undergoing a long duration surgical procedure. A single intra-operative dose should suffice the entire case. Acebutolol has a 3- to 4-h half-life. Esmolol has a 10-min half-life. It is the shortest acting Beta-blocker. Metoprolol has a 3- to 4-h half-life. Reference: Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, Fourteenth Edition By Bertram G. Katzung, Pg no. 166.

Sample MCQ #2

Which of the following patients is most likely to be treated with intravenous glucagon?

AAn 18-year-old woman who took an overdose of cocaine and now has a blood pressure of 190/110 mm Hg
BA 57-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes who has not taken her glyburide for the last 3 days
CA 62-year-old man with severe bradycardia and hypotension resulting from ingestion of an overdose of Atenolol
DA 74-year-old man with lactic acidosis as a complication of severe infection and shock
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: C. A 62-year-old man with severe bradycardia and hypotension resulting from ingestion of an overdose of Atenolol

Glucagon acts through cardiac glucagon receptors to stimulate the rate and force of contraction of the heart. Because this bypasses cardiac β adrenoceptors, glucagon is useful in the treatment of β-blocker-induced cardiac depression. Reference: Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, Fourteenth Edition By Bertram G. Katzung Pg no. 757

Sample MCQ #3

A 45-year-old woman found obtunded in her apartment. She is hypotensive and bradycardic. Intravenous glucagon is administered, and her condition improves. Which of the following intracellular changes is most likely responsible for the improvement in her condition?

ASynaptic release of glutamate
BDecreased cAMP in vascular smooth muscle
CDecreased DAG in vascular smooth muscle
DIncreased cAMP in cardiac myocytes
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: D. Increased cAMP in cardiac myocytes

This patient has most likely overdosed on beta blocker medications. Beta blocker overdose causes diffuse non-selective blockade of peripheral beta adrenergic receptors, causing depression of myocardial contractility, bradycardia, and varying degrees of AV block. The result is a low cardiac output state. Glucagon is the drug of choice for beta blocker overdose. Glucagon acts on G protein-coupled receptors, increasing intracellular CAMP and thus increasing the release of intracellular calcium during muscle contraction. This increases heart rate and cardiac contractility. Improvements in heart rate and blood pressure may be observed within minutes. Reference: Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, Fourteenth Edition By Bertram G. Katzung Pg. no. 192

Sample MCQ #4

A patient presented with suspected cocaine overdose. Which of the following features is not seen in this patient?

ABradycardia
BAgitation
CMyocardial infarction
DHyperthermia
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. Bradycardia

In the periphery, cocaine it blocks uptake of NA and Adr intoadrenergic nerve endings, resulting in higher concentration of the transmitter around the receptors → sympathomimetic effect, potentiation of directly acting sympathomimetics and suppression of indirectly acting sympathomimetics. Local vasoconstriction, tachycardia, rise in BP and mydriasis are the manifestations of its sympathomimetic action.

Sample MCQ #5

While playing in the garden, a 9-year-old boy is stung by 3 bees, now presented to ED for difficulty breathing since 15 minutes. When the symptoms started, his mother noticed a rash and swelling of his tongue and lips. Two years ago, he was diagnosed with asthma. What is the treatment of choice?

ADiphenhydramine
BIM Epinephrine 1:1000
CIM Epinephrine 1:10000
DMethylprednisolone
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: B. IM Epinephrine 1:1000

Given clinical scenario of patient's rash, swelling, and difficulty breathing shortly after exposure to bee's stung are suggestive of anaphylaxis. In this case, start initial treatment immediately by administering epinephrine IM 1:1,000 (1 mg/mL) into the anterolateral thigh. Epinephrine injections for anaphylaxis should always be given intramuscularly in a concentration of 1:1,000 (Option B is correct) Option C: Epinephrine 1:10,000 solution used in cardiac arrest through IV route. Injecting the 1:1,000 solution into a vein can lead to cardiac arrhythmia/arrest. Option A & D: Antihistamines and corticosteroids are sometimes used as supplementary agents, but the prompt parenteral use of epinephrine is mandatory and lifesaving, thus it's treatment of choice for anaphylaxis. Reference: Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, Fourteenth Edition By Bertram G. Katzung, Pg no. 147.

Sample MCQ #6

A 65-year-old male is given an intravenous infusion of an agent that increases peripheral vascular resistance, increases systolic blood pressure, decreases pulse pressure, and decreases heart rate. Which of the following agents is being described?

APhenylephrine
BDobutamine
CIsoproterenol
DEpinephrine
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. Phenylephrine

Of the agents given in option, only phenylephrine has the actions described. Phenylephrine is a selective alpha-1 adrenergic receptor agonist that causes marked arterial vasoconstriction when administered intravenously. The result is an increase in systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure. The induced blood pressure increase elicits a baroreceptor-mediated increase in vagal tone, which results in decreased stroke volume and a slowed heart rate. The pulse pressure, defined as the systolic pressure minus the diastolic pressure, is decreased by phenylephrine because of the reflex decrease in stroke volume and the increased afterload. Reference: Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, Fourteenth Edition By Bertram G. Katzung Pg. no. 194

Sample MCQ #7

48-year-old man comes with blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg despite the use of enalapril as well as an appropriate dietary and exercise program. He has had problems with asthma since childhood and having allergy with sulfa drugs. Which of the following drugs is most appropriate for this patient?

AAtenolol
BLabetalol
CNadolol
DPropranolol
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. Atenolol

This patient is hypertensive despite the use of the ACE inhibitor enalapril, an appropriate diet, and an exercise program. The physician then prescribes a second antihypertensive medication. A beta blocker was likely chosen since the use of a thiazide or loop diuretic is contraindicated in this patient due to a severe sulfa allergy. B1-selective antagonists are often used to control hypertension in patients, such as asthmatics, who might experience bronchoconstriction with nonselective beta antagonists (e.g., propranolol). Remember that beta1 receptors predominate in the heart, while B2 receptors predominate in the lungs. Reference: Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, Fourteenth Edition By Bertram G. Katzung Pg no. 187

Sample MCQ #8

Which among the following is a short-acting beta-blocker?

ANadolol
BPropranolol
CEsmolol
DAtenolol
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: C. Esmolol

Explanation: Esmolol is an ultra- short-acting cardioselective beta-1 blocker. Its exceptionally short half-life (~9 minutes) is due to rapid metabolism by erythrocyte esterases . This makes it ideal for use in critical care settings (e.g., supraventricular tachycardia, perioperative hypertension) where precise, short-duration beta-blockade is required. Explanation of other options: Nadolol (Option A): A long-acting, non-selective beta-blocker. Propranolol (Option B): A non-selective beta-blocker with an intermediate half-life. Atenolol (Option D): A cardioselective beta-blocker with a longer half-life, suitable for once-daily dosing. Key Takeaways: Esmolol's short duration of action is due to metabolism by esterases in the blood. It is the beta-blocker of choice when a rapidly titratable and reversible effect is needed.

What you can practise in Sympathomimetics

  • 62 Sympathomimetics MCQs on Autonomic Nervous System — each with detailed explanations
  • Previous-year question practice across NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS
  • Progress and performance tracking to measure retention

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Frequently Asked Questions

What do Sympathomimetics MCQs cover?

Sympathomimetics MCQs range from beta-blocker overdose and its glucagon rescue to cocaine toxicity, anaphylaxis management and phenylephrine haemodynamics. This high-yield NEET PG collection tests adrenergic receptor pharmacology through vivid clinical vignettes.

How many Sympathomimetics questions are there, and which exams do they cover?

MedLadder includes 62 curated MCQs for Sympathomimetics under Pharmacology (Autonomic Nervous System), covering NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS preparation.