Abnormal Labour is part of the Labor and Puerperium section of OB & G. Practise 34 exam-style MCQs for NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS, each with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.
Breech delivery of the aftercoming head, shoulder dystocia manoeuvres from McRoberts to Zavanelli, and brow presentation with its mentovertical diameter make these Abnormal Labour MCQs a high-yield NEET PG workout on malpresentation and obstructed labour.
Sample Abnormal Labour MCQs with answers
Sample MCQ #1
A 26-year-old pregnant woman is referred by her obstetrician for evaluation of anemia. This woman has macrocytic anemia, an increased serum concentration of transferrin, and a normal serum concentration of vitamin B12, the most likely cause of her anemia is deficiency of which of the following?
ACobalamin
BErythropoietin
CFolic acid
DIron
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: C. Folic acid
Deficiencies of folic acid or vitamin B12 are the most common causes of megaloblastic anemia. If a patient with this type of anemia has a normal serum vitamin B12 concentration, folate deficiency is the most likely cause of the anemia. Reference: Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, Fourteenth Edition By Bertram G. Katzung Pg no. 844-45
Sample MCQ #2
Not a method for delivery of after- coming head of breech ?
AForceps method
BBurns and Marshall method
CMalar flexion and shoulder traction
DHalf hand method
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✓ Correct Answer: D. Half hand method
Ans. D. Half hand method Methods of delivery of aftercoming head are Burns - Marshall method ForcePs delivery Malar flexion and shoulder traction (modified Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit technique)
Sample MCQ #3
A 22-year-old pregnant woman presents with dysuria and increased frequency. A urinary tract infection is diagnosed. What is the most appropriate step?
ANo treatment
BShould be treated
CTreatment if the c-reactive protein(CRP) is high
DTreatment if the erythrocyte sedimentation rate(ESR) is high
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✓ Correct Answer: B. Should be treated
Infections in pregnancy should be treated, as 25% of patients will develop acute pyelonephritis. Nitrofurantoin, cephalosporins and beta lactams are safe in pregnancy. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21 st ed, Ch: 135, Pg: 1077.
Sample MCQ #4
Which of the mentioned drugs is not ideal for treatment of UTI in pregnant women?
ANitrofurantoin
BCephalosporin
CAmpicillin
DFluoroquinolones
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✓ Correct Answer: D. Fluoroquinolones
Nitrofurantoin, ampicillin, and the cephalosporins are considered relatively safe in early pregnancy. One retrospective case-control study suggesting an association between nitrofurantoin and birth defects has not been confirmed Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21 st ed, Ch: 135, Pg: 1077
Sample MCQ #5
Which of the following statements is TRUE? Asymptomatic bacteruria needs treatment in?
APregnancy
BIndividuals > 80 years of age
CDiabetic patients
DBoys < 1 year of age.
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✓ Correct Answer: A. Pregnancy
Asymptomatic bacteruria means the presence of bacteria and WBC in the urine in the absence of symptoms. Microbiological criteria is >10 5 CFU/mL of urine. It requires treatment in: Pregnancy Those undergoing urological procedure Neutropenic patients Renal transplant recepients. The last 2 are relative indications. Reference: Harrison's Principles of internal medicine, 21 st ed, Ch:135, Pg:1075-1077.
Sample MCQ #6
Zavenelli's manoeuver done in:
AShoulder dystocia
BDeep transverse arrest
CRetained placenta
DFace presentation
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. Shoulder dystocia
Shoulder dystocia Mc Roberts manoeuvre (most commonly performed/first performed manoeuvre) Wood's manoeuvre Zavanelli manoeuvre. Breech extraction Burns Marshall technique (for after coming head of Breech). Modified Mauriceau Smellie-Veit technique (Malar flexion and shoulder traction). Lovset's manoeuvre (for extended arms). Pinard's manoeuvre (for frank breech extraction). Reference: Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 406
Sample MCQ #7
Commonest cause of nonengagement at term, in primi is:
ACPD
BHydramnios
CBrow presentation
DBreech
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. CPD
In primi's the most common cause of non engagement at term is a deflexed head or occipitoposterior position followed by cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD). Since deflexed head or occipitoposterior is not given in option, we will go for CPD as the answer Also know : Engagement is said to occur when the greatest transverse diameter of the presenting part, has passed through the pelvic inlet. In all cephalic presentations, the greatest transverse diameter is always the biparietal. Engagement occurs in multipara with commencement of labour 38 weeks in the late Ist stage after rupture of membranes and in Nullipara during the last few weeks of pregnancy Reference : Dutta Obs. 7/e, pg 81, 82, 352
Sample MCQ #8
In brow presentation, presenting diameter (s) is/are:
ASubmentovertical
BOccipitofrontal
CMentovertical
DSuboccipitobregmatic
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: C. Mentovertical
Brow Presentation: Engaging diameter – Mentovertical (14 cm). There is no mechanism of labour. Diagnosed on P/V by palpating supraorbital ridges and anterior fontanelle. Delivery is by cesarean section. Reference : Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 392
What you can practise in Abnormal Labour
34 Abnormal Labour MCQs on Labor and Puerperium — each with detailed explanations
Previous-year question practice across NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS
Progress and performance tracking to measure retention
Breech delivery of the aftercoming head, shoulder dystocia manoeuvres from McRoberts to Zavanelli, and brow presentation with its mentovertical diameter make these Abnormal Labour MCQs a high-yield NEET PG workout on malpresentation and obstructed labour.
How many Abnormal Labour questions are there, and which exams do they cover?
MedLadder includes 34 curated MCQs for Abnormal Labour under OB & G (Labor and Puerperium), covering NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS preparation.