Reproductive Endocrinology is part of the Endocrine System section of Medicine. Practise 17 exam-style MCQs for NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS, each with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.
From Turner syndrome oestrogen replacement and Kallmann syndrome GnRH failure to PCOS as a leading anovulation cause and functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea in athletes, these Reproductive Endocrinology MCQs connect hormones with fertility — high-yield NEET PG material for FMGE and INI-CET.
Sample Reproductive Endocrinology MCQs with answers
Sample MCQ #1
A 12-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone would be most appropriate to treat this condition?
AGrowth hormone
BProgesterone
CEstrogen
DPulsatile GnRH
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: C. Estrogen
This girl most probably has Turner's syndrome , which is most commonly associated with absence of one X chromosome (XO pattern). Characteristic features in this condition include streak ovaries and absent internal genitalia. Estrogen administration will develop female secondary sex characters and life-long therapy will be required. Growth hormone may be useful for a limited period to increase her height. As the ovaries are absent, pulsatile GnRH and luteinising hormone would be of no use. Progesterone would be useful for inducing withdrawal bleed in females sufficiently treated with estrogen. Reference : Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 21 st edition Page 3000
Sample MCQ #2
Kallmann's syndrome is due congenital synthesis defect of?
ALH
BFSH
CTestosterone
DGnRH
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: D. GnRH
Kallmann's syndrome is hypogonadotropic hypogonadism with anosmia. It is due to defective hypothalamic gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)synthesis. KAL gene defect on chromosome Xp22.3 is the culprit. Embryonic migration of GnRH neurons from hypothalamic olfactory placode to hypothalamus is prevented due to this genetic defect. Reference : Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 21 st edition Page 3013
Sample MCQ #3
Most common cause of anovulation in females is:
AFunctional hypothalamic amenorrhea
BPCOS
CPremature ovarian insufficiency
DOvarian tumors
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: B. PCOS
Five most important causes for anovulation in females include PCOS and other hyperandrogenic disorders, hypothalamic anovulation, hyperprolactinemia, POI and chronic illnesses Reference : Williams Textbook of Endocrinology 14th edition Page 601
Sample MCQ #4
A 26-year-old overweight woman presents with hirsutism and oligomenorrhoea. She has been unable to conceive for 18 months. The adrenals appear normal on ultrasound scanning, but an ovarian ultrasound scan reveals numerous small follicles in both ovaries. Which of the following is likely to fit best with her diagnosis?
AThe LH/FSH ratio is likely to be normal
BSex hormone-binding globulin is low in 50% of sufferers with this condition
CTestosterone levels are usually normal
DFertility is usually unaffected by this condition
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: B. Sex hormone-binding globulin is low in 50% of sufferers with this condition
This is polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Oligo/amenorrhoea is present in 70%, hirsutism in 60%, obesity in 35% and infertility in 30%. LH is usually markedly raised, as is the LH/FSH ratio. Sex hormone-binding globulin is low in 50% of sufferers primarily due to hyperinsulinaemia. Testosterone and DHEAS (dehydroepiandrosterone) levels are also usually raised. Up to 40% of women with PCOS may have impaired glucose tolerance, and up to 10% frank type-2 diabetes mellitus. The insulin-resistant state is also associated with dyslipidemia. Management is usually with weight loss and lifestyle advice. Metformin is a useful treatment for insulin resistance and may help restore fertility, although clomiphene may also be required for ovulation induction. Reference : Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 21 st edition Page 3035
Sample MCQ #5
A 29-year-old female with Turner syndrome is referred by the GP concerned about her blood pressure which he has found to be persistently elevated at between 140-160/90 mmHg. On examination she is noted to have a blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg, with no radio-femoral delay and no murmur audible. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her hypertension?
ACoarctation of the aorta
BEssential hypertension
CPrimary hyperaldosteronism
DRenal artery stenosis
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: B. Essential hypertension
Hypertension is quite common in Turner syndrome (10%) and is typically idiopathic i.e. essential hypertension. In a small proportion of cases, causes can include coarctation of the aorta and renal dysfunction due to horse-shoe kidney. In this case, the absence of specific features of coarctation would make essential hypertension the most appropriate option. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Principles, 20 th edition, ch:271 pg:1896
Sample MCQ #6
A 15-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She represents her school in athletics and is now training for the national championships. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for her?
AEstrogen
BGonadotropin-releasing hormone
CRecombinant FSH
DAdequate diet and observation
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: D. Adequate diet and observation
Menarche may be delayed in girls who are involved in strenuous physical activity. This is termed as"Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea" in which strenuous physical activity, caloric restriction and extreme stress can lead to reduced GnRH and gonadotropins production from hypothalamus and pituitary. Treatment with GnRH or gonadotropins are not required as the reversal of these risk factors would lead to resumption of normal menstrual cycles. Provision of an adequate diet and the relief of stress would be the most appropriate treatment in this case. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 21 st edition Page 3035
Sample MCQ #7
A 45 year male presents with weight loss and watery diarrhea for several weeks. Investigations reveal hypokalaemia. Which of the following would support a diagnosis of a VIPoma?
AHypoglycaemia
BMigratory erythema
CPellagra
DAchlorhydria
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: D. Achlorhydria
VIPomas in adults are usually neuroendocrine islet cell tumors of the pancreas that produce high amounts of VIP. Other secreted hormones may include secreted gastrin and pancreatic polypeptide. Achlorhydria (lack of acidity from the stomach) is classically associated with VIPoma. It can be diagnosed by measuring acid output from nasogastric contents (NG tube). Features of VIP syndrome include watery diarrhea, hypochlorhydria, hyperglycemia, hypercalcemia and flushing. Hypoglycemia is associated with insulinoma Pellagra a condition caused by niacin deficiency occurs in carcinoid syndrome Migratory erythema associated with glucagonoma. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21 st Ed, Ch: 84 Pg: 665
Sample MCQ #8
A 46 year old man presents with a 6 month history of severe indigestion. 3 years ago he had a duodenal ulcer seen on endoscopy. Investigations reveal: Fasting gastrin 160 mg/dL Where is gastrin produced?
AOesophagus
BColonic mucosa
CG cells of gastric antrum
DIslet cells
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: C. G cells of gastric antrum
Gastrin is produced by the G cells of gastric antrum . It stimulates parietal cells to produce hydrochloric acid. Its production is stimulated by neural reflex pathways and also by direct effect of digested peptides on the G cells. Normal fasting gastrin levels are usually 150-200mg/dL Reference : Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21 st ed, Ch: 324, Pg: 2453
What you can practise in Reproductive Endocrinology
17 Reproductive Endocrinology MCQs on Endocrine System — each with detailed explanations
Previous-year question practice across NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS
Progress and performance tracking to measure retention
From Turner syndrome oestrogen replacement and Kallmann syndrome GnRH failure to PCOS as a leading anovulation cause and functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea in athletes, these Reproductive Endocrinology MCQs connect hormones with fertility — high-yield NEET PG material for FMGE and INI-CET.
How many Reproductive Endocrinology questions are there, and which exams do they cover?
MedLadder includes 17 curated MCQs for Reproductive Endocrinology under Medicine (Endocrine System), covering NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS preparation.