Medical Entrance Revision · Medicine

Diabetes Mellitus - Complications and Management MCQs

Diabetes Mellitus - Complications and Management is part of the Endocrine System section of Medicine. Practise 52 exam-style MCQs for NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS, each with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

52
Questions
Core
Endocrine System
4 Exams
NEET PG · INICET · FMGE · SS
100%
With Rationales
All Medicine Topics

About Diabetes Mellitus - Complications and Management MCQs

Expect insulin classes from NPH to glargine and detemir, SGLT2-inhibitor ketoacidosis risk, tirzepatide dual incretin action and pioglitazone fluid retention woven through these Diabetes Mellitus - Complications and Management MCQs — high-yield prescribing for NEET PG and INI-CET.

Sample Diabetes Mellitus - Complications and Management MCQs with answers

Sample MCQ #1

Which of the following is an intermediate acting insulin?

AGlulisine
BLispro
CDetemir
DNPH
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: D. NPH

Ultra short acting Aspart Lispro Glulisine Short acting Regular insulin Intermediate acting NPH Lente Long acting Detemir Glargine Degludec Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 21 st edition page 3108

Sample MCQ #2

A 46-year-old diabetic man on oral hypoglycemic drugs is found to have hyponatremia. Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause this complication?

AChlorpropamide
BTolbutamide
CGlibenclamide
DGliclazide
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. Chlorpropamide

Up to 5% of patients taking chlorpropamide may develop inappropriate ADH-like syndrome resulting in dilutional hyponatremia. Drugs causing SIADH : ( 5C + SVOT ) C yclophosphamide C hlorpropamide C arbamazepine C hlorpromazine C lofibrate S SRI V incristine O xytocin T ricyclic antidepressants Reference : Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 21 st edition Page 2924

Sample MCQ #3

A 54-year-old female with type 2 diabetes is admitted with diarrhea and vomiting. She has noticed small amounts of blood in her stools. The vomiting had commenced one day after having a non-vegetarian diet. The patient's type 2 diabetes is treated with diet alone. Stool cultures taken by the GP reveal Campylobacter jejuni.Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy?

AAmoxicillin
BCefaclor
CIV fluids
DMetronidazole
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: C. IV fluids

Campylobacter is a leading cause of diarrhoeal illness, often caused by ingestion of undercooked meat harboring the pathogen. It is also a major cause of traveller's diarrhea . The use of antibiotic therapy for the management of Campylobacter infection in adults is controversial. Antibiotic of choice in this infection is erythromycin, though ciprofloxacin and tetracycline may also be appropriate. However, appropriate fluid replacement and anti-emetics are initially indicated - most units advocate no antibiotic treatment. Antibiotics are not recommended in patients with nontyphoid Salmonella, Campylobacter, STEC, Aeromonas, or Yersinia, except in severe disease, because they do not hasten recovery or reduce the period of fecal bacterial excretion Reference : Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21 st ed, Ch: 133, Pg: 1065

Sample MCQ #4

A 22-year-old female presents to the diabetes clinic for review. She is a keen rower who suffers from Type 1 diabetes and has suffered two severe hypoglycaemic attacks after rowing training. Her current insulin regime isBD 30/70 mixed insulin. Investigations; Hb 13.1 g/dl WCC 4.3 x 10^9/L PLT 295 x 10^9/L Na+ 140 mmol/l K+ 4.4 mmol/l Creatinine 0.8 mg/dl HbA1c 9.1% You plan to make a change to a basal bolus insulin regime Which of the following would be the most appropriate short acting insulin for her?

AInsulin glargine
BInsulin lispro
CInsulin detemir
DNovomix 50/50
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: B. Insulin lispro

Both insulin glargine and insulin detemir are long-acting insulin analogues, which have been primarily shown in Type 1 diabetes to reduce nocturnal hypoglycaemia. Traditional long-acting insulin, novomix 50/50 is unlikely to be of much help in this patient as it would still necessitate a BD dosing regime. Insulin lispro was the first insulin analogue to be developed, by reversing the position of two amino-acids (lysine and praline) in the B-chain of human insulin. This allows larger amounts of prandial insulin to be available soon after injection and reduces the chance of between meal hypoglycemia. Reference: Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine 20 th edition Ch: 397,399 Pg:2863-64,2885-88

Sample MCQ #5

Which group of OHA increases the risk of Diabetic Ketoacidosis?

ADPP4 inhibitors
BGLP-1 analogues
CAmylin analogues
DSGLT2 inhibitors
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: D. SGLT2 inhibitors

There are reports of increased incidence of DKA with the use of SGLT2 inhibitors Hence SGLT2 inhibitor are not advocated for use during acute infections and perioperative period The mechanisms of increased risk of DKA include: Diuretic effect producing volume contraction Hyperglucagonemia Non-insulin dependent glucose reduction In many occasions, DKA precipitated by SGLT2 inhibitors occur at blood glucose levels lower than usual (Euglycemic DKA) Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 21 st edition page 3110

Sample MCQ #6

The dual GLP-1 and GIP agonist used in the management of Diabetes mellitus is:

ATirzepatide
BTeduglutide
CImeglimin
DDorzagliatin
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. Tirzepatide

Tirzepatide is the dual GLP1 and GIP agonist (SURPASS clinical trial) Teduglutide is the GLP2 inhibitor used in short bowel syndrome Imeglimin is the oxidative phosphorylation inhibitor used in Diabetes Dorzagliatin is the glucokinase activator for the management of DM Reference: SURPASS Trial - NEJM 2021

Sample MCQ #7

A 50-year-old male with an 8 year history of type 2 diabetes is being treated with Metformin 1g bd and gliclazide 80 mg daily. He is obese, has gained weight over the last year and his HbA1c has deteriorated from 7.5 to 7.9%. His physician wishes to stop the gliclazide and treat him with Pioglitazone Which of the following would be regarded as a typical side effect of Pioglitazone therapy?

AAcanthosis nigricans
BFluid retention
CLactic acidosis
DMyositis
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: B. Fluid retention

Pioglitazone like other PPAR gamma agonists such as rosiglitazone may cause fluid retention (about 10%) and this can be minimized by avoiding agents that may exacerbate fluid retention such as calcium antagonists. Due to this effect, it is contraindicated in patients with advanced heart failure and also in severe diabetic retinopathy where it may precipitate macular edema. Other notable side effects include reduction of bone density, reduction of haematocrit due to hemodilution and a doubtful increase in risk of bladder cancer. Reference : Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 21 st edition Page 1936

Sample MCQ #8

A 74-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and multiple transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs) comes to the hospital complaining of visual field loss. He says this happened suddenly and he woke up with problems with his vision the morning before coming to the Emergency department. Medications include clopidogrel, ramipril, atorvastatin, and metformin. On examination his BP is 165/100 mmHg, his pulse is 76 and regular. Visual field examination reveals a right homonymous upper quadrantanopia. Where is the most likely site for the underlying lesion?

ALeft occipital lobe
BLeft temporal lobe
COptic chiasm
DRight optic nerve
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: B. Left temporal lobe

Lesions beyond the optic chiasma produces homonymous hemianopia. Hence optic chiasm and optic nerve are ruled out. Optic chiasmal lesions cause bitemporal hemianopia and optic nerve lesions cause complete blindness in the affected eye. Involvement of the optic radiation that loop inferiorly into the temporal lobe, called the Meyer’s loop, cause superior quadrantanopia which will be homonymous. Lesions of the occipital cortex causes homonymous hemianopia. Optic radiation that loops superiorly into the parietal lobe causes inferior qudrantanopia. Hence among the given options the one that unequivocally causes a quadantanopia superiorly on the right side is a temporal lobe lesion on the left side Reference: Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine 21st h edition Chapter:32, page number:219

What you can practise in Diabetes Mellitus - Complications and Management

  • 52 Diabetes Mellitus - Complications and Management MCQs on Diabetes Mellitus, Complications, Management — each with detailed explanations
  • Previous-year question practice across NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS
  • Progress and performance tracking to measure retention

More Medicine topics

Types of Assessment for Diagnosis
10 questions
Cushing Syndrome
54 questions
Diabetes Mellitus - Clinical Features
57 questions
Reproductive Endocrinology
17 questions
Disorders of Parathyroid and Calcium
69 questions
Hyperbilirubinemia and Functions of Liver
21 questions

Prepare for your exam

NEET PG Question BankTopic-wise MCQs and previous-year questionsINI-CET Question BankTopic-wise MCQs and previous-year questionsFMGE Question BankTopic-wise MCQs and previous-year questionsNEET SS Question BankTopic-wise MCQs and previous-year questionsFree All-India Mock TestsTimed mocks with live leaderboards

Frequently Asked Questions

What do Diabetes Mellitus - Complications and Management MCQs cover?

Expect insulin classes from NPH to glargine and detemir, SGLT2-inhibitor ketoacidosis risk, tirzepatide dual incretin action and pioglitazone fluid retention woven through these Diabetes Mellitus - Complications and Management MCQs — high-yield prescribing for NEET PG and INI-CET.

How many Diabetes Mellitus - Complications and Management questions are there, and which exams do they cover?

MedLadder includes 52 curated MCQs for Diabetes Mellitus - Complications and Management under Medicine (Endocrine System), covering NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS preparation.