Carcinoma Cervix is part of the Gynaecologic Oncology section of OB & G. Practise 77 exam-style MCQs for NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS, each with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.
Pap screening to colposcopic biopsy, CIN grading and the management of carcinoma in situ anchor these Carcinoma Cervix MCQs, which test HPV risk factors and triage strategy as high-yield NEET PG, FMGE and INI-CET revision.
Sample Carcinoma Cervix MCQs with answers
Sample MCQ #1
Pap smear of janki, 46 years female shows CIN grade III. Which of the following is the next step in management?
APunch biopsy
BLarge loop excision
CColposcopy directed biopsy
DCone biopsy
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: C. Colposcopy directed biopsy
Pap smear is only a screening test. To confirm we need to do a biopsy. In all visible lesions punch biopsy should be done In the case of invisible lesions, colposcopic directed biopsy is the gold standard. Thus, in this case since it is not mentioned growth is visible so we do colposcopy guided biopsy. Reference: Williams Gynecology 1 st /ed pg 628, Table 29-6
Sample MCQ #2
A 56-year-old female patient has carcinoma ovary with bilateral involvement with ascitic fluid in the abdomen. The stage is:
AII
BIII
CIV
DIC
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: D. IC
Bilateral involvement and malignant ascites is seen in category IC. In IC also- according to the new classification it is IC 3. Superficial liver metastasis is included in Stage III. Metastasis to liver parenchyma is included in Stage IV. Reference : Novak 14 th /ed pg 1477; Shaw 15 th /ed pg 427
Sample MCQ #3
A 42-year-old female P3 + 0 + 0 + 3 is found to have carcinoma in situ. Best treatment would be:
AHysterectomy
BWertheim's hysterectomy
CConisation
DWait and watch
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. Hysterectomy
"Carcinoma in situ (stage 0) can be managed successfully by cone biopsy or by abdominal hysterectomy." Reference : Harrison 17 th /ed pg 608 Friends, carcinoma in situ is managed in young women with cone biopsy, whereas in older women or females who had completed their families (> 40 years), simple hysterectomy is the TOC. Reference : Harrison 17 th /ed pg 608; Reference : Novak 14 th /ed pg 581; Reference : Jeffcoate 6 th /ed pg 398
Sample MCQ #4
Which of the following is not a risk factor for CA cervix?
ALow parity
BMultiple sexual partner
CEarly sexual intercourse (< 16 years)
DSmoking
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. Low parity
Factors Predisposing to CIN/Ca cervix: Human Papillomavirus infection Sexually transmitted infection Coitus before 18 years of age Multiple sex partners Multiparity Poor personal hygiene Poor socioeconomic status Smoking, Immunosuppressed individuals Women on OCP, Progesterone therapy for a long time are predisposed to adenocarcinoma of endocervix. In utero exposure to DES "HPV is central to the development of cervical neoplasia. HPV - DNA is found in 95% of all squamous cell carcinoma & 90% of all adenocarcinomas." Reference : Novak 15 th /ed pg 1306.
Sample MCQ #5
HPV triage strategy includes all except:
AConventional pap smear
BLiquid based cytology
CHybrid capture 2 for HPV DNA
DColposcopy
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: D. Colposcopy
HPV triage strategies are used to determine the next step in cervical cancer screening when HPV is detected. These strategies typically involve Conventional Pap smear (A) - Used for cytological evaluation of cervical cells. Liquid-based cytology (B) - A more advanced method of cytology that improves sample quality. Hybrid Capture 2 (HC2) for HPV DNA (C) - A molecular test used to detect high-risk HPV DNA. Colposcopy (D) is not a triage strategy but rather a diagnostic procedure performed if abnormal cytology or persistent high-risk HPV is found Reference : Dutta Gynae 6 th /ed pg 323-4
Sample MCQ #6
The following is always an indication of cesarean section, except:
AAbruption placentae
BUntreated stage of I b Ca cervix
CActive primary genital herpes
DType IV placenta previa (major previa)
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. Abruption placentae
Cesarean Section is not indicated in all cases of abruptio placentae. 'An attempt at vaginal delivery is indicated if the degree of separation appears to be limited and if continuous FHR tracing is reassuring. When the placental separation is extensive but the fetus is dead or of dubious viability, vaginal delivery is indicated'. - COGDT 10/e, p 334 In carcinoma cervix, classical cesarean section should be done, vaginal delivery should not be allowed because of cervical dystocia and injuries. - Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 308 Cesarean section is indicated in an active primary genital HSV infection where the membranes are intact or recently ruptured. - Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 300 In a severe degree of placenta previa (Type II posterior, Type III or Type IV), cesarean section is indicated for maternal interest even if the baby is dead. Reference : Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 308, 301, 250; COGDT 10/e, p 334
Sample MCQ #7
Patient diagnosed as squamous cell intraepithelial lesion which of the following has the highest risk for progression to carcinoma:
ALow grade squamous intraepithelial neoplasia
BHigh grade squamous intraepithelial neoplasia
CSquamous intraepithelial associated with HPV 16
DSquamous intraepithelial neoplasia associated with HIV
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: B. High grade squamous intraepithelial neoplasia
There are various nomenclatures/classification systems for reporting of Pap smear. The one which is classically used is by WHO, which uses the terms CIN-I, CIN-II and CIN-III. Another system as discussed earlier is Bethesda which classified the disease as LSIL=low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion and HSIL high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion and as discussed in chapter on cancer cervix chances of progressing to cancer are maximum with HSIL which includes CIN11, CIN111 and Ca in situ Reference: Shaw 15 th /ed p 402; Williams Gynae 1 st /ed p 629
Sample MCQ #8
A 45 year old woman Complains of contact bleeding. She has positive pap smear. The next line of management is:
AColposcopy directed biopsy
BCone biopsy
CRepeat pap smear
DHysterectomies
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. Colposcopy directed biopsy
44 years old patient presenting with post coital bleeding and positive pap smear raises suspicion of carcinoma cervix / CIN which needs to be confirmed (as pap smear is only a screening procedure). In the question it is not mentioned whether lesion is visible nor the size of lesion is given so we take it to be invisible. As already discussed for invisible lesions, colposcopy should be done to confirm the diagnosis. Reference : Williams Gynae 1 st /ed pg 628, Table 29.6
What you can practise in Carcinoma Cervix
77 Carcinoma Cervix MCQs on Gynaecologic Oncology — each with detailed explanations
Previous-year question practice across NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS
Progress and performance tracking to measure retention
Pap screening to colposcopic biopsy, CIN grading and the management of carcinoma in situ anchor these Carcinoma Cervix MCQs, which test HPV risk factors and triage strategy as high-yield NEET PG, FMGE and INI-CET revision.
How many Carcinoma Cervix questions are there, and which exams do they cover?
MedLadder includes 77 curated MCQs for Carcinoma Cervix under OB & G (Gynaecologic Oncology), covering NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS preparation.