Medical Entrance Revision · Medicine

Cerebrovascular Disease MCQs

Cerebrovascular Disease is part of the Nervous System section of Medicine. Practise 36 exam-style MCQs for NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS, each with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

36
Questions
Core
Nervous System
4 Exams
NEET PG · INICET · FMGE · SS
100%
With Rationales
All Medicine Topics

About Cerebrovascular Disease MCQs

Cerebrovascular Disease MCQs open on sudden hemiparesis after head and neck pain, subarachnoid blood on CT, aneurysmal bleeding with a family history, and antiplatelet therapy in acute ischaemic stroke, plus burning foot pain in young-stroke evaluation, for NEET PG and FMGE high-yield practice.

Sample Cerebrovascular Disease MCQs with answers

Sample MCQ #1

A 25-year-old female presented with a sudden onset of left sided head and neck pain. 24 hours later she presents with sudden onset of right hemiparesis, facial weakness and homonymous hemianopia and left Horner's syndrome. A CT brain showed a left middle cerebral artery territory infarction. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

AAntiphospholipid syndrome
BCardiac embolism
CLeft carotid artery dissection
DMigraine
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: C. Left carotid artery dissection

The presence of neck pain on the left side, followed by a right sided weakness points to the diagnosis of carotid dissection. The two commonest causes of young onset stroke (less than 40 years) are cardio-embolism and carotid artery dissection. Carotid artery dissection is either spontaneous or traumatic. Facial/head/neck pain and Horner's syndrome are characteristic features. Migrainous stroke usually affects the posterior circulation (posterior cerebral artery territory is the commonest). Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21 st ed, Ch: 426, Pg: 3341

Sample MCQ #2

A 72-year-old woman presented with an acute, severe occipital headache, unsteadiness of her gait and vomiting. She had a history of poorly controlled hypertension. On examination there was nystagmus to the left, ataxia of the left limbs and gait ataxia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

AAcute cerebellar haemorrhage
BBasal ganglia haemorrhage
CPontine haemorrhage
DSubdural haemorrhage
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. Acute cerebellar haemorrhage

Cerebellar haemorrhage The most common symptoms are of severe nausea and vomiting and ataxia. Headache may be severe. Patients with cerebellar haemorrhage can rapidly become comatose within hours after the onset from herniation, because of its limited space in the posterior fossa. Pontine haemorrhage There are numerous nuclei located within the pons. Rapidly deteriorating level of consciousness, impaired extraocular movement and extensive sensorimotor deficits are clinical clues to pontine haemorrhage. Basal ganglia haemorrhage Contralateral hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, or hemi-inattention. Aphasia, especially non-fluency and impaired comprehension, is frequently seen if haemorrhage occurs in the posterior limb of the left internal capsule. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21 st ed, Ch: 428, Pg: 3350

Sample MCQ #3

A 41 year old man complained of a severe headache. Following this, he then developed nausea and vomiting and came to the ER to be assessed. A CT scan demonstrated blood in the left sylvian fissure. Which of the Following is the most likely cause?

AMigraine
BSubdural haematoma
CCarotid dissection
DBerry aneurysm rupture
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: D. Berry aneurysm rupture

The history is consistent with a subarachnoid haemorrhage, caused by rupture of a berry (saccular) aneurysm. Migraine will not cause blood in the Sylvian fissure. Carotid dissection will result in ischemia in the brain rather than bleed. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21 st ed, Ch: 429, Pg: 3355

Sample MCQ #4

A 48-year-old man with chest pain of 1-hour duration is diagnosed as having acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following features, if present, would most contraindicate thrombolytic therapy?

ABlood pressure 160/110 mmHg
BHistory of likely ischaemic stroke within the past month
CST-segment elevation in ECG
DPrevious aspirin therapy
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: B. History of likely ischaemic stroke within the past month

There is an approximate 1% risk of stroke and a 0.7% risk of major hemorrhage associated with the use of thrombolysis. Recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) is connected with a lower rate of intracranial hemorrhage and hence is the drug of choice for thrombolysis in acute myocardial infarction of less than 12 hour's duration. Absolute contraindications for thrombolytic therapy Aortic dissection Previous cerebral hemorrhage Known history of cerebral aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation Known intracranial neoplasm Recent (within the past 6 months) thromboembolic stroke Active internal bleeding (excluding menstruation) Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 21 st edition Page no: 2059

Sample MCQ #5

A 44 year old lady died of Subarachnoid hemorrhage due to cerebral aneurysm. As per her sister who is conscious at present, there is a family history of other deaths from subarachnoid haemorrhage. She is, however, asymptomatic. What should be done?

AReassure and nothing else
BCT scan of head
CMRI Brain scan
DCerebral angiography
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: C. MRI Brain scan

This may be a case of familial subarachnoid haemorrhage. In those who have a first degree relative who genuinely suffered a SAH, their risk of also suffering one is 3-7 times that of the general population. MRI is better than CT scan for screening. Angiography is diagnostic but too invasive for screening. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21 st ed, Ch: 429, Pg: 3355

Sample MCQ #6

A 77-year-old woman has had worsening shortness of breath for several years.She now has to sleep sitting up on two pillows. She has difficulty swallowing. There is no history of chest pain. She is afebrile. Recently, she suffered a stroke with left hemiparesis. A chest x ray reveals a near-normal left ventricular size with a prominent left atrial border.Which of the following conditions is most likely to account for these findings?

AAortic coarctation
BCardiomyopathy
CLeft renal artery stenosis
DMitral valve stenosis
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: D. Mitral valve stenosis

Mitral valve stenosis leads to left atrial enlargement, but the left ventricle is usually small. An enlarged left atrium may lead to pressure posteriorly on the oesophagus. Most mitral valvular disease in adults results from rheumatic heart disease. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21 st ed, Ch: 427, Pg: 3337

Sample MCQ #7

A 35 year old male is evaluated for young stroke. He gives history of burning pains in both his feet since his late teenage. What can be seen on examining this patient?

ATendon xanthomas
BPalmar xanthomas
CCentral obesity
DAngiokeratomas
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: D. Angiokeratomas

We have a patient with stroke presenting at a very young age along with symptoms of peripheral neuropathy. This should make us thing of Fabry's Disease. It is an X linked dominant disorder. The characteristic skin lesions that are seen in Fabry's disease are Angiokeratomas. They are dark red to blue black maculopapular lesions that are seen in the area between the umbilicus and knee most abundantly. Other features are hypohidrosis, vascular diseases of the heart, kidneys and brain. Lenticular and corneal opacities may also e seen. Xanthomas, Central obesity can also occur in familial dyslipidemias that can also cause stroke in young. But here there is history of burning parasthesias due to peripheral neuropathy which is seen in Fabry's disease. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21 st ed, Ch: 418, Pg: 3259

Sample MCQ #8

Which of the following antiplatelet agents has been proven effective in the acute treatment of ischemic stroke?

AAspirin
BClopidogrel
CDipyridamole
DPrasugrel
Show Answer & Explanation ▾
✓ Correct Answer: A. Aspirin

Aspirin is the only antiplatelet agent that has been proven to be effective for the acute treatment of ischemic stroke; there are several antiplatelet agents proven for the secondary prevention of stroke. Reference: Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine 21st edition, chapter 427 page number. 3338

What you can practise in Cerebrovascular Disease

  • 36 Cerebrovascular Disease MCQs on Nervous System — each with detailed explanations
  • Previous-year question practice across NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS
  • Progress and performance tracking to measure retention

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Prepare for your exam

NEET PG Question BankTopic-wise MCQs and previous-year questionsINI-CET Question BankTopic-wise MCQs and previous-year questionsFMGE Question BankTopic-wise MCQs and previous-year questionsNEET SS Question BankTopic-wise MCQs and previous-year questionsFree All-India Mock TestsTimed mocks with live leaderboards

Frequently Asked Questions

What do Cerebrovascular Disease MCQs cover?

Cerebrovascular Disease MCQs open on sudden hemiparesis after head and neck pain, subarachnoid blood on CT, aneurysmal bleeding with a family history, and antiplatelet therapy in acute ischaemic stroke, plus burning foot pain in young-stroke evaluation, for NEET PG and FMGE high-yield practice.

How many Cerebrovascular Disease questions are there, and which exams do they cover?

MedLadder includes 36 curated MCQs for Cerebrovascular Disease under Medicine (Nervous System), covering NEET PG, FMGE, INI-CET and NEET SS preparation.